Once again, there is no indication in Scripture that He had any. But it is very possible that He did since the Todah sacrifice was already instituted and very common amongst the Jews.LG: God's word does not contradict itself. Mans twisting it does. Once again: When Jesus said these words, He was in the synagogue in Capernaum (John 6 verse 59), and He had neither bread nor wine.
Therefore Jesus was either commanding cannibalism or He was speaking figuratively.Neither do I.I don't see where He commanded cannibalism..
I don't see any Scriptures where drinking blood in the appearance of wine is forbidden. And I see one explicit command to do so..in fact I see many scriptures where drinking blood is a no no.......
Its not about you. The Catholic interpretation is right, whether you believe it or not.Therefore I have to conclude the RCC interpretation is in error.
Sincerely,
De Maria
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