DeMaria,
Thanks for trying to answer, but I don’t think those verses really applied to what I was asking. I was hoping someone could explain from the Catholic position how we are all objectively redeemed (the price has been paid and satisfaction has been made) and what that entails, how it differs from subjectively applied redemption, and how satisfaction has been made but somehow not all men are under that satisfaction. As well as if the distinction between sufficient and efficacious grace plays into this.
Thanks for trying to answer, but I don’t think those verses really applied to what I was asking. I was hoping someone could explain from the Catholic position how we are all objectively redeemed (the price has been paid and satisfaction has been made) and what that entails, how it differs from subjectively applied redemption, and how satisfaction has been made but somehow not all men are under that satisfaction. As well as if the distinction between sufficient and efficacious grace plays into this.
I think Jason has hit the nail on the head. I gave you the Catholic position but you didn’t recognize it because you are looking at it from a Protestant perspective.
Christ died in order that all mankind might be redeemed. But some men rejected their redemption. Only those who cooperated with the grace of God have applied the grace of redemption to their souls and will be saved.
2 Cor 5:15 And that he died for all, that they which live should not henceforth live unto themselves, but unto him which died for them, and rose again.
16 Wherefore henceforth know we no man after the flesh: yea, though we have known Christ after the flesh, yet now henceforth know we him no more.
Christ died for all so that some might be saved. Those who are saved are those who obey God, those who keep the Commandments.
Hebrews 5:9
And being made perfect, he became the author of eternal salvation unto all them that obey him;
And being made perfect, he became the author of eternal salvation unto all them that obey him;
Sincerely,
De Maria
