No, it has been effectively rebutted several times. Please read the responses rather than ignoring the points of rebuttal. That is the only way you could make this claim.
Point 1 does not mention anyone in the NT having sex either. Should we assume that it never happened to the people mentioned such Peter or Jarius?
Your logic is faulty.
1. You claim that Scripture does not say that Mary is a perpetual virgin, therefore you conclude that Mary is not a perpetual virgin.
2. To support that contention, you provide an example of Scripture not mentioning that anyone had sex. To be consistent with your first claim, you should conclude that therefore, since it isn't mentioned in Scripture, it can't be true. But you conclude the opposite.
3. Your logic supports the Catholic position.
If Mary was a perpetual virgin then how does Joseph deal with his sex drive?
With the grace of God. Do you really believe the myths that men will go blind if they don't have sex?
Where do you get the idea that "Sex is never done after contact with the Divine Presence" from Scripture? There was nothing from the angel when he spoke with Mary that it was forbidden for her to have sexual relations with her husband.
Was there anything that said it was permitted?
There is absolutely nothing to be gained theologically by Mary not having normal sexual relations with her husband and having more children.
That is because you don't discern the meaning of Scripture spiritually. Mary is not simply a vessel which carried the Divine Being of Christ. She is the Spouse of the Holy Spirit.
If she were to have sex with St. Joseph, she would become an adulteress and St. Joseph an adulterer.
Now, let me show you that Mary is married to the Holy Spirit. The important terminology here is "overshadowed".
A euphemism for marriage in the Old Testament is covering:
Ruth 3:
7 And when Boaz had eaten and drunk, and his heart was merry, he went to lie down at the end of the heap of corn: and she came softly, and uncovered his feet, and laid her down. 8 And it came to pass at midnight, that the man was afraid, and turned himself: and, behold, a woman lay at his feet. 9 And he said, Who art thou? And she answered, I am Ruth thine handmaid: spread therefore thy skirt over thine handmaid; for thou art a near kinsman.
Ruth, effectively asked Boaz to marry her. If you read the rest of the story, you will see that Boaz understood and was determined to do so.
To a Jew, it is clear that when the Holy Spirit "overshadowed" the Virgin Mary, He took her to Himself and the logical outcome is that a Child would be born. The Virgin Mary then married St. Joseph for righteousness sake. The same reason that the sinless Jesus was Baptized.
St. Joseph, being a righteous man, would have known better than to go into the Virgin Mary, having been informed in a dream that she bore the Child by the Holy Spirit:
Matthew 1:20
But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the LORD appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost.
Before Jesus was born it would have been since the prophecy said He would be born of a virgin. See Isaiah 7:14. After this prophecy was fulfilled there is no reason for her to remain a virgin.
You say this because you know neither the Scriptures nor the power of God.
Also, if Jesus was to experience humanity to the fullest extent then being part of a family where He had brothers and sisters would be expected.
Being an only child makes one no less a human.
Sincerely,
De Maria
