Jesus used the Septuagint.

Hi Lutero,

You said:
Another contradiction and a lie. Jesus never used the Septuagint. Mathew 5:18 (KJV) states otherwise.  Your argument for the Septuagint collapses like a pack of cards. The NABRE even mutilates Matthew 5:18 beyond recognition, because all Catholic Bibles are powered by the same corrupted Alexandrian codices.  In addition, Jesus only mentioned the scripture text in two ways, (1) “The Law and the Prophets” and (2) “The Law of Moses, the Prophets and the Psalms”:….

Really? Do you think, that I said, that because the Old Testament was written in Greek, Jesus did not also use the Hebrew? Or do you think, that because the Old Testament existed in Hebrew, that Jesus did not also use the Greek?

Why would He use one only? Did He not encounter people who spoke only Greek and people who spoke only Aramaic and people who spoke only Hebrew?

Certainly, Jesus used the Hebrew Scriptures. Why not!? But He also used the Septuagint Scriptures. And that is easily proven:

….Perhaps one of the most important instances of the New Testament writers’ use of the Septuagint isMatthew 1.23, in which the Gospel writer quotes Isaiah 7.14. The Hebrew word almah, argued by some in our day to indicate a young woman of marriageable age but one not necessarily a virgin, is translated in the Septuagint as parthenos. This Greek word means virgin, indicating that the Jewish translators before the time of Christ understood the prophecy correctly. Other Jews after the advent of the Christian era translated the word into Greek as neanis, ‘young woman’, in order to distance the prophecy from fulfilment in Jesus. Matthew quotes the Septuagint, applying it to Jesus….

See this website for more proof that Jesus used The Septuagint

Sincerely,

De Maria