Mary's birth pangs

 If Mary did not sin, how do you explain this Psalm 51:4-5

4 Against thee, thee only, have I sinned, and done this evil in thy sight: that thou mightest be justified when thou speakest, and be clear when thou judgest.

David acknowledges that he sinned against God.

5 Behold, I was shapen in iniquity; and in sin did my mother conceive me.

He also acknowledges that he was born in the original sin which we all inherit from our parents.

Is that what you were asking?

Hm? I think I get it. Are you saying that the Messiah is admitting that His mother sinned? Well, if that is the case, then He also admitted that He, Himself sinned. Read verses 2 and 3:
2 Wash me throughly from mine iniquity, and cleanse me from my sin.

3 For I acknowledge my transgressions: and my sin is ever before me.

Yes, this is a Messianic Psalm, spiritually speaking. But, literally speaking, David was talking about himself. Therefore, we must discern which portions of the Psalm pertain to Jesus Christ, which Scripture says:

Hebrews 4:15
King James Version (KJV)
15 For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.

and Luke 2:21-22?

21 And when eight days were accomplished for the circumcising of the child, his name was called Jesus, which was so named of the angel before he was conceived in the womb.

22 And when the days of her purification according to the law of Moses were accomplished, they brought him to Jerusalem, to present him to the Lord;

Did you ever read in Scripture, where Jesus said:
Matthew 3:15
King James Version (KJV)
15 And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him.

Although He never sinned, He submitted to Baptism for the remission of sins. To fulfill all righteousness.

That is the same reason why, the sinless Virgin Mary, submitted to the purification ritual, to fulfill all righteousness.

(ii) The Catholic Church teaches that Mary was conceived without the stain of original sin, then the woman with the 12 stars on her head in Revelation 12:1 is not Mary because of Revelation 12:2 the woman was said to be experiencing “birth pains”

The entire Book of Reveleation is written in a style of speech called Apocalyptic. It is recognized that this book contains many symbols. In this case, the pain of childbirth represents the pains which Mary did endure which are referred to in another symbol by the prophet St. Simeon in the Temple:
Luke 2:35
King James Version (KJV)
35 (Yea, a sword shall pierce through thy own soul also,) that the thoughts of many hearts may be revealed.

And this pain is not that of the physical birth of Jesus Christ. But of the spiritual birth of the Church by the efforts of Her Son, who also commanded her to be the mother of all who love Him:

John 19:26-27
26 When Jesus therefore saw his mother, and the disciple standing by, whom he loved, he saith unto his mother, Woman, behold thy son!

And commanded us to take her as our Mother:

27 Then saith he to the disciple, Behold thy mother! And from that hour that disciple took her unto his own home.

Which is also confirmed in Revelations 12:17:
Revelation 12:17
King James Version (KJV)
17 And the dragon was wroth with the woman, and went to make war with the remnant of her seed, which keep the commandments of God, and have the testimony of Jesus Christ.

The Woman of Rev 12 is definitely Mary.

For those who converted to Roman Catholicism, how did you test the veracity of the Marian dogmas?

Lolo asks:

For those who converted to Roman Catholicism, how did you test the veracity of the Marian dogmas?

I'm a revert from atheism. I became convinced of the truth of the Marian Dogmas in two ways.

1st. I was first convinced of the Doctrine of the Mother of God. I did not even consult Scripture for that one. I used what I later learned was Luther's syllogism.

Mary is the Mother of Jesus.
Jesus is God.
Therefore, Mary is the Mother of God.

Later, I noticed that although the terms, Assumption and Queen of Heaven are not used explicitly in reference to Mary, she is described as being in heaven and wearing a crown of twelve stars in Rev 12:1.

Revelation 12:1
King James Version (KJV)
1 And there appeared a great wonder in heaven; a woman clothed with the sun, and the moon under her feet, and upon her head a crown of twelve stars:

Then someone pointed out to me that one verse earlier St. John described seeing the Ark of the Covenant, but suddenly he started speaking about a Woman in heaven. This, of course, relates to the Doctrine of the Ark of the New Covenant:

Revelation 11:19
King James Version (KJV)
19 And the temple of God was opened in heaven, and there was seen in his temple the ark of his testament: and there were lightnings, and voices, and thunderings, and an earthquake, and great hail.

Then, I noticed that Rev 12:17, speaks of Mary as mother of all who keep the Commandments and hold the Testimony of Christ:
Revelation 12:17
King James Version (KJV)
17 And the dragon was wroth with the woman, and went to make war with the remnant of her seed, which keep the commandments of God, and have the testimony of Jesus Christ.

As I studied Scripture further, I noticed that the Word of God speaks of her in the highest praise. 

Luke 1:26-28King James Version (KJV)
26 And in the sixth month the angel Gabriel was sent from God unto a city of Galilee, named Nazareth,27 To a virgin espoused to a man whose name was Joseph, of the house of David; and the virgin's name was Mary.28 And the angel came in unto her, and said, Hail, thou that art highly favoured, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women.


Let's break this down:
ANGEL GABRIEL
1. an angel is a messenger of God. That is what the word, angel, means.
2. this angel, Gabriel, is one of the four angels that stands before the throne of God.


WAS SENT FROM GOD
1. God sent this angel to Mary.
2. Since this angel is a messenger of God's, God sent Him to deliver a message.
3. Therefore, the angel was not speaking on his own, but was communicating God's message to Mary.
4. If we skip down to verse 28, we see that this was a message of praise (i.e. blessed art thou).
5. Therefore God praised Mary through His Angel.


That is great praise indeed. Do you know of any man whose praise is worth more than God's? In other words, what do you value more highly, the praise of man or the praise of God?
But, there's more. God sent the Angel to do His Will. What is His Will. Obviously, God sent the Angel to deliver a message of praise. Therefore it is God's will that the Angels praise Mary.


And there's yet more. Because the Holy Spirit inspired a holy woman to exclaim, ""Blessed are you among women, and blessed is the child you will bear! "
still in:
Luke 1:41-45
King James Version (KJV)
41 And it came to pass, that, when Elisabeth heard the salutation of Mary, the babe leaped in her womb; and Elisabeth was filled with the Holy Ghost: 42 And she spake out with a loud voice, and said, Blessed art thou among women, and blessed is the fruit of thy womb.
Should we break this down?
1. The Holy Spirit is God the Third Person of the Holy Trinity.
2. Therefore, God inspired Elisabeth to praise Mary.
3. This praise is inscribed in the Word of God for all generations.
4. Since Elisabeth is a member of the human race, then it is safe to conclude that God wills that men praise Mary.
5. And we find, again, that God praised Mary through His Saint. Saint Elisabeth praised Mary when she was inspired by the Holy Spirit to do so. That means that it is the Holy Spirit's praise which she passed on. That is why Scripture is called the Word of God. Because it is inspired by the Holy Spirit.


Need we say more? Let's do it anyway.
Mother of God
Luke 1:43-45
New International Version (NIV)
43 But why am I so favored, that the mother of my Lord should come to me? 44 As soon as the sound of your greeting reached my ears, the baby in my womb leaped for joy.45 Blessed is she who has believed that the Lord would fulfill his promises to her!” 

Lets break this down:
1. The word "Lord" is here mentioned two times.
2. In the second instance, it is an obvious reference to God. "Blessed is she who believes that the LORD would fulfill His promises." That is an obvious reference to God.
3. Therefore, then, what could she possibly have meant when she said, "mother of my LORD"?
4. Since she was inspired by the Holy Spirit to utter these words, she must have meant what is most obvious. Is Jesus, God? Yes. Therefore, the words she uttered could also be translated, "mother of my GOD".
5. So, God explicitly teaches us, in His Word, that Mary is the Mother of God.


Is there any higher praise than that?


And so, I became convinced by the reading of Scripture, that all the Catholic Dogmas about Mary are true.

Sincerely,

De Maria

Enoch, Mary and the Assumption

The Bible seems explicit to me concerning the assumption of Enoch. The Bible also seems explicit in explaining why Enoch was assumed into heaven: Hebrews 11:5 ....for before his translation he had this testimony, that he pleased God. 
Read More...

All we do is imitate and obey Jesus.

Red:
In 1745...St. Alphonsus Delaguarie

Liquori.

wrote a book called The Glories of Mary.

Correct.

It is fully authorized by the Roman Catholic Church. Its latest edition is a smaller abridged version of it, published by the Catholic Book Publishing Company of New York and officially stamped by the Vicar General, the Archdiocese of New York.

Nothing in that book which can be construed to be against the faith.

Here is a small sample

: Wonderful!

In the Marion year, Pope Pius XII apparently reflected the Church's view of the Virgin Mary when the Pope stood up to give this following Pontifical prayer, and I quote: "Enraptured by the splendor of your heavenly beauty

Psalm 45:9-11

9 Kings' daughters were among thy honourable women: upon thy right hand did stand the queen in gold of Ophir.  10 Hearken, O daughter, and consider, and incline thine ear; forget also thine own people, and thy father's house;  11 So shall the king greatly desire thy beauty: for he is thy Lord; and worship thou him.

and impelled by the anxieties of the world, we cast ourselves into your arms, O immaculate mother of Jesus

Luke 1:
43 And whence is this to me, that the mother of my Lord should come to me?

and our mother,

Do you consider yourself one who keeps the Commandments of God and the testimony of Jesus Christ?

Revelation 12:
17 And the dragon was wroth with the woman, and went to make war with the remnant of her seed, which keep the commandments of God, and have the testimony of Jesus Christ.

Mary we adore

Have you ever heard a man say to his wife, "I adore you." Does he mean that she is a goddess? Or that he loves her?

We adore Mary in the sense that we love her as Jesus Himself loved her. With a supernatural love.

and praise the peerless richness of the sublime gifts with which God has filled you above every other mere creature from the moment of conception

Luke 1:
47 And my spirit hath rejoiced in God my Saviour.
48 For he hath regarded the low estate of his handmaiden: for, behold, from henceforth all generations shall call me blessed.
49 For he that is mighty hath done to me great things; and holy is his name.

until the day on which your assumption into heaven He crowned you Queen of the Universe.

Revelation 12:1
And there appeared a great wonder in heaven; a woman clothed with the sun, and the moon under her feet, and upon her head a crown of twelve stars:

O crystal fountain of faith,

Luke 1:
46 And Mary said, My soul doth magnify the Lord,

bathe our hearts with your heavenly perfume. O conqueress of evil and death,

Genesis 3:
15 And I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed; it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel.

inspire in us a deep horror of sin which makes the soul detestable to God and the slave of hell. O well-beloved of God,

Luke 1:
28 And the angel came in unto her, and said, Hail, thou that art highly favoured, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women.

hear the ardent cries which rise up from every heart in this year dedicated to you. Then tenderly, O Mary, cover our aching womb, convert the wicked, dry the tears of the afflicted and the oppressed. Comfort the poor and humble. Quench hatred. Sweeten harshness. Safeguard the flower of purity. Protect the holy Church. In your name resounding harmoniously in heaven, may they recognize that all are brothers and that the nations are members of one family.

Rev 12:17, all who bear the testimony of Christ and keep the Commandments of God are her seed.

Receive, O sweet mother, our humble supplications and above all, obtain for us on that day, happy with you that we may repeat before your throne that hymn which is sung today around your altars, you are beautiful, O Mary, you are glory, O Mary, you are the joy, you are the honor of our people," end quote.

Amen! She is the Mother of Jesus Christ. No one can bestow upon Mary a greater honor than God already has.

No, there is no Mary worship going on here.

Absolutely none. All we do is imitate and obey Jesus. He gave Himself to Mary. And then He gave us to her as well:

John 19:
25 Now there stood by the cross of Jesus his mother, and his mother's sister, Mary the wife of Cleophas, and Mary Magdalene.26 When Jesus therefore saw his mother, and the disciple standing by, whom he loved, he saith unto his mother, Woman, behold thy son!27 Then saith he to the disciple, Behold thy mother! And from that hour that disciple took her unto his own home.

Are you a disciple whom Jesus loves? I know I am. Therefore, in obedience to the command of Jesus Christ, I behold my mother when I behold Mary and I take her into my heart.

You can change the word worship to whatever you'd like, but this is straight up idolatry.

What is this that Joshua, one of God's chosen, did before St. Michael, the Archangel?

Joshua 5:14

King James Version (KJV)
14 And he said, Nay; but as captain of the host of the Lord am I now come. And Joshua fell on his face to the earth, and did worship, and said unto him, What saith my Lord unto his servant?

Sincerely,

De Maria

St. Alphonsus "Marie" de Liguori - Glories of Mary

An objection was posted against St. Alphonsus Marie de Liguori

Quote: 

Then I presume that you have read "Glories of Mary".

I sure have. A wonderful book and a treasure of Catholic devotion to Mary.

Quote:Here are quotes, with page references:
"At the command of Mary all obey-even God."

That is true. I'll go even further. At the suggestion of Mary, all obey, even God.

Let me take you to Scripture. Jesus is God, is He not?

Luke 2:51And he went down with them, and came to Nazareth, and was subject unto them: but his mother kept all these sayings in her heart.

Jesus was subject to whom? To Joseph and Mary.

And lets look at the Wedding at Cana:

John 2
1And the third day there was a marriage in Cana of Galilee; and the mother of Jesus was there: 2And both Jesus was called, and his disciples, to the marriage.

Mary, Jesus and His disciples were at a wedding feast.

3And when they wanted wine, the mother of Jesus saith unto him, They have no wine.

And Mary said to Jesus, "they have no wine". Is this a command? Is this a request? No, this is merely an observation.

What confidence this woman has that her intentions will be fulfilled.

4Jesus saith unto her, Woman, what have I to do with thee? Mine hour is not yet come.

What is this? Is this an objection from the PERFECT Son? I don't believe so, but many Protestants characterize it thus.

To me it is merely Our Lord jesting with His Mother. After all, there at a party.

5 His mother saith unto the servants, Whatsoever he saith unto you, do it. 

At any rate, His mother doesn't take it seriously. She doesn't even acknowledge it. She simply turns around and says, "do as He tells you."

Note that she doesn't say, "Do MY will." She says, "Obey Him." "Do what Jesus tells you."

Mary always points us to Jesus and Mary always COMMANDS us to do God's will.

Quote:Page 155 in the paperback version that I have, a short ways into Chapter VI.
"The Way of salvation is open to none otherwise than through Mary."

Jesus Christ is our salvation and salvation came through Mary.

Revelation 12:17And the dragon was wroth with the woman, and went to make war with the remnant of her seed, which keep the commandments of God, and have the testimony of Jesus Christ.

And unless you accept Mary as your mother, you will not be at war with the dragon. Because it is HER seed who keep the commandments of God and have the testimony of Jesus Christ.

Quote:Page 143 in the paperback, but if you read the entirety of Chapter V, you will see this restated over and over and over many times so that it is abundantly clear.

I didn't deny it. I embrace that teaching. It is from Scripture. This is why THE WORD OF GOD calls Mary blessed amongst women.

Quote:"The Holy Church carefully teaches us her children with what attention and confidence we should unceasingly have recourse to this loving protectress; and for this reason commands a worship peculiar to Mary"

Here he is using the word "worship" in its archaic sense. This can be verified if we look at several types of governors who receive worship from regular folk even today:

The word "worship" has undergone a change in meaning in English. It comes from the Old English weorthscipe, which means the condition of being worthy of honor, respect, or dignity. To worship in the older, larger sense is to ascribe honor, worth, or excellence to someone, whether a sage, a magistrate, or God.

For many centuries, the term worship simply meant showing respect or honor, and an example of this usage survives in contemporary English. British subjects refer to their magistrates as "Your Worship," although Americans would say "Your Honor." This doesn’t mean that British subjects worship their magistrates as gods (in fact, they may even despise a particular magistrate they are addressing). It means they are giving them the honor appropriate to their office, not the honor appropriate to God. 

Saint Worship?
Quote:- Immediately after the reference to worship, on page 107, he refers to here as the "Divine Mother" (his capitalization. This term is used from end of the book to the other.

Have you ever heard the term, "to err is human, to forgive divine". Does that mean that we believe everyone who forgives is God? Of course not!

Divine is here used as an endearment. In the Latin languages, "divina" is frequently used to speak of any woman whom we love. Be it wife, mother, daughter.

Related to the above, the word Divine also means "beautiful" and in that sense, we also use it to refer to Mary, O beautiful mother and to the women we love.

In Mary's however, it is exclusively used because she is the only Mother who gave birth to the Divine God. It is a reference to her Divine MATERNITY. Therefore, Divine Mother.

Quote:- Page 112 and elsewhere suggests that her mercy never fails, but because Jesus is also our judge, and thus it is better to go to Mary than to Jesus for salvation since we can be assured of her mercy and compassion

Yeah. What he is saying there is that Jesus is also our Judge.  But Mary is not our judge.  She is our advocate.  They will both play the role which they are designated to play.  Have you not read in Scripture:

2 Timothy 4:1

King James Version (KJV)

1 I charge thee therefore before God, and the Lord Jesus Christ, who shall judge the quick and the dead at his appearing and his kingdom;

Have you not also read:

2 Corinthians 5:11

King James Version (KJV)

¹¹ Knowing therefore the terror of the Lord, we persuade men; but we are made manifest unto God; and I trust also are made manifest in your consciences.

Notice that St. Paul doesn't just say, FEAR of the Lord.  But TERROR.  And with good reason.  Let's look at another verse:

Hebrews 10:30-31

King James Version (KJV)

³⁰ For we know him that hath said, Vengeance belongeth unto me, I will recompense, saith the Lord. And again, The Lord shall judge his people.
³¹ It is a fearful thing to fall into the hands of the living God.

But Scripture does not describe even on instance where Mary is to be feared or where Mary judges anyone.  So, St. Alphonsus is being perfectly Biblical in this teaching.

Quote:- She can be blasphemed (p114) someone which can only be done against God

Not so. Any Saint can be blasphemed. It is calling that which is holy, unholy. Saints are holy.

The question has been raised whether blasphemy against the saints differs in kind from that uttered immediately against God. While De Lugo thinks that such a difference obtains (De Poenit., disp. Xvi, n. 178 sqq.) the opposite opinion of St. Alphonsus seems more tenable, for as the latter theologian observes, the saints, ordinarily speaking, are not blasphemed because of their own excellence but because of their close relationship to God (Theol. Moral., lib. IV, n. 132).

CATHOLIC ENCYCLOPEDIA: Blasphemy

Quote:- Though Jesus died on the cross and shed His blood for our salvation, we can only be saved through Mary since she dispenses the blood (P.116)

 I'd like to see the quote. I don't believe he would have used the word "only" in this regard. And this is the reason.

Although Protestants believe that the only one who suffered on Calvary that day was Jesus. We believe, because of her deep love for her Son, that Mary also suffered on that Cross.

Anyone who has children can perhaps empathize with this. I know I can. There's a song, "were you there" which touches upon this idea. But it can't come anywhere near the fact that this MOTHER watched her Son and her God being tortured and crucified.

Two people suffered on the Cross that day, Jesus and His Mother.

Quote:- She conquered Satan, hell and the demons and crushed the head of Satan (which scripture says was Jesus). P.117

Actually, the older text says it would be the Woman:

Genesis 3 15 I will put enmities between thee and the woman, and thy seed and her seed: she shall crush thy head, and thou shalt lie in wait for her heel.

We believe she crushed his head through Her Seed.

Quote:- At the name of Mary, the devils tremble and every knee bows (p.123)

Because Mary is always accompanied by her Son.

Quote:Now that I have shown that what you called impossible to be true, please answer my question -

Except I've shown you that what you said was true is impossible.

Quote:when tradition contradicts scripture, or contradicts itself, what do you do?

The Catholic Church never contradicts Scripture.

Sincerely,

De Maria 

How could 2 Peter 2:1 be about protestants only?

This is from a discussion I'm having with a Protestant named Bob, here.

Bob said:
I’d like to address some of your points. How could 2 Peter 2:1 be about protestants only? In fact we already see in Revelation 1-3 where the Lord Christ Himself is rebuking various churches for holding to false doctrines. 

In regards to your church we could look at a number of examples of its teachings and see if they line up with Scripture. Take Mary’s sinlessness. No one in the New Testament taught she was without sin and in fact acknowledges her need of a Savior in Luke 1:47. To claim she would was without sin would contradict Romans 3:9 for example. Have you ever read The Glories of Mary by Alfonso Ligori? 

Do you also believe that all grace comes through Mary? 

What is your definition of Sola Scriptura? I want to know if we agree on what it is before I can agree with you that its false. 

Here is what a couple of Roman Catholic scholars say about the woman of Rev 12:
Raymond Brown and J.A. Fitzmyer, editors of the Jerome Biblical Commentary (2:482):
“a woman: Most of the ancient commentators identified her with the Church; in the Middle Ages it was widely held that she represented Mary, the Mother of Jesus. Modern exegetes have generally adopted the older interpretation, with certain modifications. 

In recent years several Catholics have championed the Marian interpretation. Numerous contextual details, however, are ill-suited to such an explanation. For example, we are scarcely to think that Mary endured the worst of the pains of childbirth (v. 2), that she was pursued into the desert after the birth of her child (6, 13ff.), or, finally, that she was persecuted through her other children (v. 17). The emphasis on the persecution of the woman is really appropriate only if she represents the Church, which is presented throughout the book as oppressed by the forces of evil, yet protected by God. Furthermore, the image of a woman is common in ancient Oriental secular literature as well as in the Bible (e.g., Is 50:1; Jer 50:12) as a symbol for a people, a nation, or a city. It is fitting, then, to see in this woman the People of God, the true Israel of the OT and NT.” 

You use Matthew 19:21 as the basis for indulgences but the verse in context has nothing to do with the idea of “the extra-sacramental remission of the temporal punishment due, in God’s justice, to sin that has been forgiven”. There is no mention of any kind of sacrament in this passage. I don’t get it. 

Even the Old Testament passages don’t support this idea. It is true there can be and usually consequences of sin in our lives but there is no promise in Scripture that these consequences will be alleviated because of some sacrament. 

Where does it say in Matthew 19:21 or anywhere in Scripture that one man’s treasure in heaven can be used for others? Where does it say in Scripture that the church can use these “extra treasures” for others? 

Trust me. I don’t want to scare you but i want to understand how you arrive at your beliefs that Roman Catholic doctrines are true. 

If by the merits of Christ all mankind is saved then why is there a continual warning about hell? If all are saved, then there can be no hell. 

Getting back to the claim that Mary was without sin based on Luke 1:28 here is what a New Testament Greek lexicon says what the words “favored one” mean: “To grace, highly honor or greatly favor. In the NT spoken only of the divine favor, as to the virgin Mary in Luke 1:28, kecharit?mén?, the perf. pass. part. sing. fem. The verb charitó? declares the virgin Mary to be highly favored, approved of God to conceive the Son of God through the Holy Spirit. The only other use of charitó? is in Eph. 1:6 where believers are said to be “accepted in the beloved,” i.e., objects of grace. (See huiothesía [5206], adoption, occurring in Eph. 1:5) In charitó? there is not only the impartation of God’s grace, but also the adoption into God’s family in imparting special favor in distinction to charízomai 

Zodhiates, S. (2000, c1992, c1993). The complete word study dictionary : New Testament (electronic ed.) 

As you can see, it does not mean she was without sin. It does not even mention it.
Again, Matthew 18 has nothing to do with traditions or doctrines but only with church discipline. Good exegesis requires us not to go beyond what is written. Claiming its about Traditions is to go beyond what this passage is saying.

I’ll address your other points next.

My response:

Hi Bob,  

I’d like to address some of your points. How could 2 Peter 2:1 be about protestants only?

Did I say Protestants ONLY?  I meant Protestants ALSO.  There have been many heresies which the Catholic Church defeated in 2000 years.

 In fact we already see in Revelation 1-3 where the Lord Christ Himself is rebuking various churches for holding to false doctrines.

True.

In regards to your church we could look at a number of examples of its teachings and see if they line up with Scripture. 

Awesome!  Let's also look at the Reformers doctrines.  You've yet to show any evidence of their being in Scripture.  You just sort of expect us to take your word for it.

Take Mary’s sinlessness. No one in the New Testament taught she was without sin

This is very repetitious.  We already discussed it above.  Do you think that you repeating Protestant lies is going to make them true?  I repeat, St. Luke taught the doctrine in verse 1:28 where he calls her "kecharitomene" which means "always full of grace."

And no one in the New Testament denies that teaching.

 and in fact acknowledges her need of a Savior in Luke 1:47. 

True.  She received these mighty gifts of God because of Jesus.  Therefore, Jesus is her Savior also.

To claim she would was without sin would contradict Romans 3:9 for example.

No, it wouldn't because St. Paul says in Rom 5:14 that some have not sinned:

Romans 5:14

Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.

 Have you ever read The Glories of Mary by Alfonso Ligori?

Yes.  I love the book.  I call myself "De Maria" partially because of St. Alphonsus "de Marie" Liguori and partially because of St. Louis "Marie" de Montfort.

Do you also believe that all grace comes through Mary?

Is Jesus "all grace"?  Was He born of Mary?

What is your definition of Sola Scriptura? I want to know if we agree on what it is before I can agree with you that its false.

YOU tell me.  It is your doctrine.  But when you tell me, make sure to show me from Scripture.  

Here is what a couple of Roman Catholic scholars say about the woman of Rev 12:

Raymond Brown and J.A. Fitzmyer, editors of the Jerome Biblical Commentary (2:482):

“a woman: Most of the ancient commentators identified her with the Church; in the Middle Ages it was widely held that she represented Mary, the Mother of Jesus. Modern exegetes have generally adopted the older interpretation, with certain modifications.In recent years several Catholics have championed the Marian interpretation. Numerous contextual details, however, are ill-suited to such an explanation. For example, we are scarcely to think that Mary endured the worst of the pains of childbirth (v. 2), that she was pursued into the desert after the birth of her child (6, 13ff.), or, finally, that she was persecuted through her other children (v. 17). The emphasis on the persecution of the woman is really appropriate only if she represents the Church, which is presented throughout the book as oppressed by the forces of evil, yet protected by God. Furthermore, the image of a woman is common in ancient Oriental secular literature as well as in the Bible (e.g., Is 50:1; Jer 50:12) as a symbol for a people, a nation, or a city. It is fitting, then, to see in this woman the People of God, the true Israel of the OT and NT.”

1st.  What's your point?  Do you believe everything these Catholics teach?  If you did, you would be a Catholic.  Because they are both faithful Catholics.

2nd.  These two Catholics are mistaken.  I can prove they are mistaken but I've already explained several other doctrines and you, "don't get it."  So, what's the point?

3rd.  I'll tackle that in a separate article.  

You use Matthew 19:21 as the basis for indulgences but the verse in context has nothing to do with the idea of “the extra-sacramental remission of the temporal punishment due, in God’s justice, to sin that has been forgiven”. There is no mention of any kind of sacrament in this passage. I don’t get it.

I can tell that you don't understand it.  Your question is completely illogical.  The reason no sacrament is mentioned is because it is "extra-sacramental".  The fact that you ask this question and the way you word the question indicates that you are faking it.  You are trying Do you know what the prefix "extra" means?

extra-

a prefix meaning “outside,” “beyond,” freely used as an English formative: extrajudicial; extraterritorial; extra-atmospheric.

http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/extra

Even the Old Testament passages don’t support this idea. It is true there can be and usually consequences of sin in our lives but there is no promise in Scripture that these consequences will be alleviated because of some sacrament. Where does it say in Matthew 19:21 or anywhere in Scripture that one man’s treasure in heaven can be used for others? Where does it say in Scripture that the church can use these “extra treasures” for others.

You said you don't get it, leave it at that.  God doesn't expect everyone to be a theologian.

Trust me. 

That is the last thing in the world I will do.  You have admitted that you don't have faith in anything you don't understand.  Therefore, it is doubtful to me that you can believe in God.  Since the very idea of God is well beyond ANY MAN'S UNDERSTANDING.  Therefore, no, I do not trust you.

I don’t want to scare you

What makes you think you scare me?

 but i want to understand how you arrive at your beliefs that Roman Catholic doctrines are true.

I already told you.

If by the merits of Christ all mankind is saved then why is there a continual warning about hell? If all are saved, then there can be no hell.

Now it sounds like you're just making noise.  The Catholic Church teaches that the righteous are saved.  Not the wicked.  You interpreted my statement in a manner that goes against that which I believe and that which the Catholic Church teaches.

Getting back to the claim that Mary was without sin

Why?  I already explained it to you about five times in about three articles on Devin's blog.  Are you going to believe me if I explain it again?

based on Luke 1:28 here is what a New Testament Greek lexicon says what the words “favored one” mean: “To grace, highly honor or greatly favor. In the NT spoken only of the divine favor, as to the virgin Mary in Luke 1:28, kecharit?mén?, the perf. pass. part. sing. fem. The verb charitó? declares the virgin Mary to be highly favored, approved of God to conceive the Son of God through the Holy Spirit. The only other use of charitó? is in Eph. 1:6 where believers are said to be “accepted in the beloved,” i.e., objects of grace. (See huiothesía [5206], adoption, occurring in Eph. 1:5) In charitó? there is not only the impartation of God’s grace, but also the adoption into God’s family in imparting special favor in distinction to charízomai

That is a Protestant Lexicon which passes on Protestant doctrine. Here is a Catholic Translation:

In other words, the perfect tense in Greek is a past tense with a special meaning: it is used to refer to a past action which has effects felt in the present. So, here's what some modern, English-speaking scholars tell us "Kecharitomene" denotes, based purely on the definition of the word and its grammatical usage: " 'Highly favoured' (kecharitomene). Perfect passive participle of charitoo and means endowed with grace (charis), enriched with grace as in Ephesians 1:6 . . . The Vulgate gratiae plena [full of grace] "is right, if it means 'full of grace which thou hast received'; wrong, if it means 'full of grace which thou hast to bestow' " (A.T. Robertson, Word Pictures in the New Testament, p. 14) "It is permissible, on Greek grammatical and linguistic grounds, to paraphrase kecharitomene as completely, perfectly, enduringly endowed with grace." (Blass and DeBrunner, Greek Grammar of the New Testament). Zodhiates, S. (2000, c1992, c1993). The complete word study dictionary : New Testament (electronic ed.) As you can see, it does not mean she was without sin. It does not even mention it. Yes, it does.  You, just "don't get it."  In the meantime, you repeating the lies of your blind guides will not make them true. Again, Matthew 18 has nothing to do with traditions or doctrines but only with church discipline. Good exegesis requires us not to go beyond what is written. Claiming its about Traditions is to go beyond what this passage is saying. It is you going beyond what is written, since that verse does not limit itself church discipline to anything.

I’ll address your other points next.

Looking forward to it.

Links:

 Was He born of Mary?

Sola Scriptura

 The Catholic Church teaches that the righteous are saved.

Sincerely,

De Maria