Jesus baptized the Apostles

De Maria March 4, 2013 at 10:54 PM

Douglass October 27, 2008 at 11:03 PM
Maybe I don’t understand an answer you gave to Michelle on 10/26. She asked about John the Baptist and Jesus doing full emersion baptism. Part of your answer was that Jesus never did any baptisms. Yet in paragraph 7 of “Are You Born Again” you state,” He (Jesus) went down and baptized people in the Jordan with his disciples” (Jn 4:1-2). I read these verses in Chapter 4 and verse 2 states *(although Jesus himself was not baptizing, just his disciples). So I see Jesus didn’t baptize, but I don’t understand your reply in paragraph 7 of your article. If you have time can you clear up this for me. Thank you for your help.

Hi, I’m not responding to your question to Steve. I’m giving my opinion in the meaning of the seemingly contradictory Scripture verses. First one verse says that Jesus baptized. Then another says that only His disciples baptized.

I think though, that Jesus had to get the ball rolling, so to speak. Who baptized the Apostles? True, some of them were baptized by St. John. But St. John’s baptism did not give the Holy Spirit. Therefore, Jesus had to re-baptize those Apostles. And baptize the rest. And then, presumably, delegated the duty of baptizing the masses to them.

That is my speculative explanation intended to explain the seeming contradiction in those two verses.

Claiming to be born again does not guarantee your salvation

          ester :

Will anyone who is "born again " end up in Hell?

If they fall away, yes.

Hebrews 6:4-6
King James Version (KJV)
4 For it is impossible for those who were once enlightened, and have tasted of the heavenly gift, and were made partakers of the Holy Ghost,
5 And have tasted the good word of God, and the powers of the world to come,
6 If they shall fall away, to renew them again unto repentance; seeing they crucify to themselves the Son of God afresh, and put him to an open shame.

Meat On Lenten Fridays: A Mortal Sin?
Thus one must substantially observe the law of abstinence on such days, and the obligation to do so is a grave one, meaning that it satisfies the condition of grave matter required for mortal sin. If one knowingly and deliberately fails in this obligation then one has committed mortal sin.

Scripture says that obedience to the Church is required of all believers:

Matthew 18:17
King James Version (KJV)
17 And if he shall neglect to hear them, tell it unto the church: but if he neglect to hear the church, let him be unto thee as an heathen man and a publican.

Full submersion Baptism

De Maria March 4, 2013 at 10:41 PM

Hi michelle,

i heard this discussion on the radio. i was raised catholic, but married a divorced man and now attend a non-denominational church. Here is my question–john the baptist and jesus all did full submersion baptism.

There is an assumption here. The assumption being that they ONLY did full submersion Baptism.

how can/does the Catholic church justify infant sprinkling ?

By the authority given to the Church by Jesus Christ (Matt 16:18-19; Matt 28:19-20; John 20:21-23)

1. the infant is not old enough to make the choice on their own

In the Gospels, the children which Jesus saved were too young to seek His aid on their own. Their parents needed to do it for them. And Jesus always healed them on behalf of their parents. (Matthew 15:28; John 4:50).

Why then, would Jesus refuse to save the little children in Baptism? (Matthew 19:14)

and 2. the baptism is not submersion–like john the baptist and Jesus.

According to the Tradition of the Catholic Church, all three types of Baptism are permitted.

If you want to interpret the requirement of Baptism according to the letter, then you must be Baptized in the Jordan River. There is no other river mentioned where anyone else was Baptized.

By the way, full submersion is not mentioned either. That is a Protestant reading into Scripture.

Sincerely,

De Maria

Objections of a former Catholic

i heard this discussion on the radio. i was raised catholic, but married a divorced man and now attend a non-denominational church. Here is my question–john the baptist and jesus all did full submersion baptism.

There is an assumption here. The assumption being that they ONLY did full submersion Baptism.

how can/does the Catholic church justify infant sprinkling ?

By the authority given to the Church by Jesus Christ (Matt 16:18-19; Matt 28:19-20; John 20:21-23)

1. the infant is not old enough to make the choice on their own

In the Gospels, the children which Jesus saved were too young to seek His aid on their own. Their parents needed to do it for them. And Jesus always healed them on behalf of their parents. (Matthew 15:28; John 4:50).

Why then, would Jesus refuse to save the little children in Baptism? (Matthew 19:14)

and 2. the baptism is not submersion–like john the baptist and Jesus.

According to the Tradition of the Catholic Church, all three types of Baptism are permitted.

If you want to interpret the requirement of Baptism according to the letter, then you must be Baptized in the Jordan River. There is no other river mentioned where anyone else was Baptized.

By the way, full submersion is not mentioned either. That is a Protestant reading into Scripture.