TIE May 23, 2013 at 8:13 pm
How is it that Christ suffered so that the human race might be freed from sin by making satisfaction for all the crimes of mankind and winning sufficient grace for the salvation of all men, but then God is not satisfied with a large portion of mankind who aren’t saved in the end?
It has to do with free will. God only approves of those men who do what He commands:
Exodus 20:6
King James Version (KJV)
6 And shewing mercy unto thousands of them that love me, and keep my commandments.
Exodus 20:6
King James Version (KJV)
6 And shewing mercy unto thousands of them that love me, and keep my commandments.
How can we claim Christ made satisfaction to the Father but then the Father still not be satisfied, as some men are not saved?
Because some men have rejected the gift of salvation:
Hebrews 2:2-4
King James Version (KJV)
2 For if the word spoken by angels was stedfast, and every transgression and disobedience received a just recompence of reward; 3 How shall we escape, if we neglect so great salvation; which at the first began to be spoken by the Lord, and was confirmed unto us by them that heard him; 4 God also bearing them witness, both with signs and wonders, and with divers miracles, and gifts of the Holy Ghost, according to his own will?
Hebrews 2:2-4
King James Version (KJV)
2 For if the word spoken by angels was stedfast, and every transgression and disobedience received a just recompence of reward; 3 How shall we escape, if we neglect so great salvation; which at the first began to be spoken by the Lord, and was confirmed unto us by them that heard him; 4 God also bearing them witness, both with signs and wonders, and with divers miracles, and gifts of the Holy Ghost, according to his own will?
How can Catholics say that all men are actually redeemed and their sins paid for, but also say that not all of mankind is saved? (I know there’s a difference between redemption objectively accomplished by the passion and subjectively applied through the sacraments; but I still don’t understand what that difference means in reality and how even being objectively redeemed doesn’t imply salvation).
If I understand you correctly, you have left out the requirement of our voluntary submission to God’s will:
Deuteronomy 30:19
I call heaven and earth to record this day against you, that I have set before you life and death, blessing and cursing: therefore choose life, that both thou and thy seed may live:
Deuteronomy 30:19
I call heaven and earth to record this day against you, that I have set before you life and death, blessing and cursing: therefore choose life, that both thou and thy seed may live:
Does this have to do with the distinction between sufficient and efficacious grace?
To my understanding, it has to do with free will.
