Showing posts with label Immaculate Conception. Show all posts
Showing posts with label Immaculate Conception. Show all posts

Tuesday, March 8, 2016

You don't see in Scripture, where God elevated Mary above all of mankind?


VG:
As many of us are familiar with the RC dogma the Immaculate Conception where the belief is that Mary was sinless in order to carry God in her womb.
TT:
This is a misstatement. It wasn't a requirement for Mary to be sinless. Like all things from God, that was a gift.

Also, I don't think you can relate receiving God into our hearts and carrying God in your womb. How many people in the history of the human race has carried God in their womb?

DC:
One, someone had to.
Yeah!  But not just anyone.  Only the Woman whom God deemed worthy of the greatest honor that anyone human could receive.
And yet we don't see Christ anywhere elevating her or exalting her above all others
Really? You don't see that in electing her to be His mother, He elevated her above all women?

And in Scripture, when she is crowned Queen of Heaven (Rev 12:1), you don't see that as God elevating her above all of mankind?
and we find no Scripture that does so either.
You do, you simply deny those Scriptures.

In fact, I think He (i.e. God) was careful not to do so....and yet here we still have Catholics turning her into some kind of goddess and ascribing things to her which neither Christ nor Scripture do. Ever think there might be a reason why Jesus never called her mother in Scripture but only referred to her as woman?
On the contrary. The problem is that you read the Scriptures with eyes of sinful flesh. Whereas the Scriptures are spiritually discerned:

1 Corinthians 2:14
King James Version (KJV)
14 But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned.

Until you can learn to receive the Spiritual truths of Scripture, you will continue to misunderstand the Word of God.

Sincerely,

De Maria

Wednesday, March 11, 2015

Somehow, for Protestants, that isn't enough.


Maggie:
Anything else besides being His mother?
Somehow, for Protestants, that isn't enough. Yet they claim to love Christ? Go figger.

Like, say, free from the stain of sin? Immaculately conceived?
Same thing. And yes. In the true Bible, Scripture says:

Hail, "kecharitomene". Which means "ever full of grace". Where there is fullness of grace no sin can exist.

Did He refer to her as the mother of God?
Scripture does. You do believe that Scripture is inspired by the Holy Spirit, don't you? And therefore without error.
Luke 1:43-45

King James Version (KJV)

43 And whence is this to me, that the mother of my Lord should come to me?
44 For, lo, as soon as the voice of thy salutation sounded in mine ears, the babe leaped in my womb for joy.
45 And blessed is she that believed: for there shall be a performance of those things which were told her from the Lord.


Lets break this down:
1. The word "Lord" is here mentioned two times.
2. In the second instance, it is an obvious reference to God. "Blessed is she who believes that the LORD would fulfill His promises." That is an obvious reference to God.
3. Therefore, then, what could she possibly have meant when she said, "mother of my LORD"?
4. Since she was inspired by the Holy Spirit to utter these words, she must have meant what is most obvious. Is Jesus, God? Yes. Therefore, the words she uttered could also be translated, "mother of my GOD".
5. So, God explicitly teaches us, in His Word, that Mary is the Mother of God.

Did He tell us we should direct our prayers to her?
Not explicitly, but by example. As Jesus is the child of Mary, we know that He depended upon her for His every need and that He must have requested many things of her. And that is the meaning of the word, "pray". To request.

In addition, Scripture teaches to praise Mary. 


Luke 1:26-28
King James Version (KJV)
26 And in the sixth month the angel Gabriel was sent from God unto a city of Galilee, named Nazareth,27 To a virgin espoused to a man whose name was Joseph, of the house of David; and the virgin's name was Mary.28 And the angel came in unto her, and said, Hail, thou that art highly favoured, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women.


Let's break this down:


ANGEL GABRIEL
1. an angel is a messenger of God. That is what the word, angel, means.
2. this angel, Gabriel, is one of the four angels that stands before the throne of God.


WAS SENT FROM GOD
1. God sent this angel to Mary.
2. Since this angel is a messenger of God's, God sent Him to deliver a message.
3. Therefore, the angel was not speaking on his own, but was communicating God's message to Mary.
4. If we skip down to verse 28, we see that this was a message of praise (i.e. blessed art thou).
5. Therefore God praised Mary through His Angel.


That is great praise indeed. Do you know of any man whose praise is worth more than God's? In other words, what do you value more highly, the praise of man or the praise of God?


But, there's more. God sent the Angel to do His Will. What is His Will. Obviously, God sent the Angel to deliver a message of praise. Therefore it is God's will that the Angels praise Mary.


And there's yet more. Because the Holy Spirit inspired a holy woman to exclaim, ""Blessed are you among women, and blessed is the child you will bear! "still in:


Luke 1:41-45
King James Version (KJV)
41 And it came to pass, that, when Elisabeth heard the salutation of Mary, the babe leaped in her womb; and Elisabeth was filled with the Holy Ghost: 42 And she spake out with a loud voice, and said, Blessed art thou among women, and blessed is the fruit of thy womb.


Should we break this down?
1. The Holy Spirit is God the Third Person of the Holy Trinity.
2. Therefore, God inspired Elisabeth to praise Mary.
3. This praise is inscribed in the Word of God for all generations.
4. Since Elisabeth is a member of the human race, then it is safe to conclude that God wills that men praise Mary.
5. And we find, again, that God praised Mary through His Saint. Saint Elisabeth praised Mary when she was inspired by the Holy Spirit to do so. That means that it is the Holy Spirit's praise which she passed on. That is why Scripture is called the Word of God. Because it is inspired by the Holy Spirit.

Sincerely,


De Maria

Friday, December 12, 2014

Where do we find the Immaculate Conception in Scripture?

For me, it is in this verse.  God said to the Serpent:

Genesis 3:15 (KJV)
15 And I will put enmity between thee and the woman, and between thy seed and her seed; it shall bruise thy head, and thou shalt bruise his heel.

The Woman, Mary, is She who is in reference here. Because the Woman, Eve, has already cooperated with Satan. But the Woman, Mary, will never cooperate with Satan, will never feel the effects of sin, because she is conceived with a deep hatred of Satan (i.e. enmity) and a deeper love of God.

Sunday, December 7, 2014

December 8, 2014 - Solemnity of the Immaculate Conception of the Blessed Virgin Mary

Patronal Feastday of the United States of America

Lectionary: 689

Reading 1 GN 3:9-15, 20

The Immaculate Conception of the Virgin Mary,  is the celebration of the union of the Holy Spirit with Mary in the womb of her mother, St. Anne, from the moment that she was engendered.  This union of the Holy Spirit and Mary is the reason why she was begotten without sin.

We begin in the book of Genesis at the point when Adam has already fallen from grace because it is at this point that God announces the coming of a Woman, who will hate the Serpent so much, that she will never be under his control.  This is the ProtoEvangelium.  The first announcement of the coming of the Messiah, the Seed of the Woman, Who will crush the Serpent under their feet.

The Woman will crush the Serpent by virtue of her giving birth to the Saviour.  The Saviour will crush the Serpent by virtue of His obedience to God, His Father.
After the man, Adam, had eaten of the tree,
the LORD God called to the man and asked him, “Where are you?”
Adam, once a friend of God, now feared and hid from Him.
He answered, “I heard you in the garden;
but I was afraid, because I was naked,
so I hid myself.”
Then he asked, “Who told you that you were naked?
Having eaten of the Tree of knowledge of good and evil, Adam was now separated from God.  It is as though the umbilical cord had been cut and Adam was no longer united to God.

The Catechism says that Adam lost the grace of Original Justice in which he was conceived.  And now lived in a state of Original Sin, which placed him at odds with God who is all holy.
You have eaten, then,
from the tree of which I had forbidden you to eat!”
Dr. Scott Hahn alls this a pre-Judgment event.  In the Judgment, we will be told our sins and be judged by God.  Adam is standing before God and being judged.
The man replied, “The woman whom you put here with me
she gave me fruit from the tree, and so I ate it.”
Adam blames his wife for his sin.  Scripture says that it is Eve who was tricked by Satan.
The LORD God then asked the woman,
“Why did you do such a thing?”
The woman answered, “The serpent tricked me into it, so I ate it.”
And the Woman, Eve, blames the Serpent.  The Serpent is the Devil, the Father of lies.
Then the LORD God said to the serpent:
“Because you have done this, you shall be banned
from all the animals
and from all the wild creatures;
on your belly shall you crawl,
and dirt shall you eat
all the days of your life.
God condemns the Serpent to crawl on its belly.

I don't think this is an explanation of why snakes lost their legs.  I believe this is an analogy or parable which is somehow related to the events of Revelation 12:7 where the Dragon was exiled from heaven and condemned to roam the earth.
I will put enmity between you and the woman,
and between your offspring and hers;
he will strike at your head,
while you strike at his heel.”
The is the Proto-Evangelium.  The first account of the Gospel predicting the coming of the Mother of God and her Son, the Saviour of the world.

Notice that there is "enmity" or "deep hatred", between the Serpent and Mary.  From the moment of her coming into existence, Mary is united to God and an enemy of Satan.  Therefore, she is conceived without sin and remains without sin her entire life.
The man called his wife Eve,
because she became the mother of all the living.
Eve became the mother of all mankind.  But Eve, here, represents Mary and the Church, because it is Mary who is the Mother of all who live in Christ. See Rev 12:17.

Responsorial Psalm PS 98:1, 2-3AB, 3CD-4

R. (1) Sing to the Lord a new song, for he has done marvelous deeds.
Sing to the LORD a new song,
for he has done wondrous deeds;
His right hand has won victory for him,
his holy arm.
In Mary, God did something new that had never been seen.  A woman protects the man?  God made man, Ecce Homo, is put under the care of a mere woman.
R. Sing to the Lord a new song, for he has done marvelous deeds.
The LORD has made his salvation known:
in the sight of the nations he has revealed his justice.
He has remembered his kindness and his faithfulness
toward the house of Israel.
God has done great things for us through the Maid which He made the Mother of His Son.  And Holy is His Name.
R. Sing to the Lord a new song, for he has done marvelous deeds.
All the ends of the earth have seen
the salvation by our God.
Sing joyfully to the LORD, all you lands;
break into song; sing praise.
R. Sing to the Lord a new song, for he has done marvelous deeds.
Therefore, thank God, for the Maid who gave her fiat that the Lord, the Saviour, might be engendered in her immaculate womb.

Reading 2 EPH 1:3-6, 11-12

Brothers and sisters:
Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ,
Holy is the name of our God!
who has blessed us in Christ
Who has given us His Son
with every spiritual blessing in the heavens,
And, in Baptism, has poured the grace of the Holy Spirit into our souls.
as he chose us in him, before the foundation of the world,
As He predestined us from time immemorial.
to be holy and without blemish before him. 
that we might live righteously and be justified in His eyes.
In love he destined us for adoption to himself through Jesus Christ,
Because of His love He elected us to be born again in Christ.
in accord with the favor of his will,
because He wanted to bless us
for the praise of the glory of his grace
by the gift of His life
that he granted us in the beloved.
that He gave us through His son.
In him we were also chosen,
In Christ we were elected
destined in accord with the purpose of the One
in line with the will of God
who accomplishes all things according to the intention of his will,
Who completes all which He sets out to do
so that we might exist for the praise of his glory,
So that we might give glory to His name.
we who first hoped in Christ.
We who turned to His Son believing and expecting to receive the promised salvation.

Alleluia SEE LK 1:28

R. Alleluia, alleluia.
Hail, Mary, full of grace, the Lord is with you;
blessed are you among women.
R. Alleluia, alleluia.
Most of us recognize these words as the prayer known as the Hail Mary.  But as you can see, they were first spoken to the Virgin Mary by the Angel Gabriel.  And they are inscribed in the Word of God. 

When you read these words, please recognize, that although they were spoken by the Angel, the Angel was also conveying the message which God sent him to deliver.  Therefore, it is not just the Angel praising Mary, but God through the Angel.

Gospel LK 1:26-38

The angel Gabriel was sent from God
God sent the angel Gabriel
to a town of Galilee called Nazareth,
to Nazareth
to a virgin betrothed to a man named Joseph,
of the house of David,
and the virgin’s name was Mary.
to relay a message to the Virgin Mary
And coming to her, he said,
“Hail, full of grace! The Lord is with you.”
And the message is one of praise
But she was greatly troubled at what was said
and pondered what sort of greeting this might be.
The word, "hail" is a greeting reserved for royalty.  So, the humble maid was confused why an angel from heaven would humble himself before her.
Then the angel said to her,
“Do not be afraid, Mary,
for you have found favor with God.
Behold, you will conceive in your womb and bear a son,
and you shall name him Jesus.
But he comforted her and explained that she would be the Mother of God.
He will be great and will be called Son of the Most High,
and the Lord God will give him the throne of David his father,
and he will rule over the house of Jacob forever,
and of his Kingdom there will be no end.”
The Mother of the promised Saviour.
But Mary said to the angel,
“How can this be,
since I have no relations with a man?”
Mary was again confused.  She, obviously, at her age, knew about the birds and the bees.  And there is no record of any woman engendering a child without sexual relations.
And the angel said to her in reply,
“The Holy Spirit will come upon you,
and the power of the Most High will overshadow you.
Therefore the child to be born
will be called holy, the Son of God.
And the Angel explained that this child would not be engendered by natural means, but by supernatural means by the power of the Holy Spirit.  The terminology, "the Most High will overshadow you" is Hebraic euphemism which means that she will be the Spouse of the Holy Spirit.   This is what it means when a man overshadows or covers a woman.  This is how she would have understood it.
And behold, Elizabeth, your relative,
has also conceived a son in her old age,
and this is the sixth month for her who was called barren;
for nothing will be impossible for God.”
As proof, the Angel offers that her own aged relative will also bear a son, even though she has been barren these many years.
Mary said, “Behold, I am the handmaid of the Lord.
May it be done to me according to your word.”
But that mattered little.  Because Mary gave her wholehearted fiat to the Lord and did not question the Angel's explanation.
Then the angel departed from her.
And the Angel went back to God who sent him. 

Thursday, January 31, 2013

How could 2 Peter 2:1 be about protestants only?

This is from a discussion I'm having with a Protestant named Bob, here.

Bob said:
I’d like to address some of your points. How could 2 Peter 2:1 be about protestants only? In fact we already see in Revelation 1-3 where the Lord Christ Himself is rebuking various churches for holding to false doctrines.
 
In regards to your church we could look at a number of examples of its teachings and see if they line up with Scripture. Take Mary’s sinlessness. No one in the New Testament taught she was without sin and in fact acknowledges her need of a Savior in Luke 1:47. To claim she would was without sin would contradict Romans 3:9 for example. Have you ever read The Glories of Mary by Alfonso Ligori? 
Do you also believe that all grace comes through Mary? 
What is your definition of Sola Scriptura? I want to know if we agree on what it is before I can agree with you that its false. 
Here is what a couple of Roman Catholic scholars say about the woman of Rev 12:
Raymond Brown and J.A. Fitzmyer, editors of the Jerome Biblical Commentary (2:482):
“a woman: Most of the ancient commentators identified her with the Church; in the Middle Ages it was widely held that she represented Mary, the Mother of Jesus. Modern exegetes have generally adopted the older interpretation, with certain modifications.
 
In recent years several Catholics have championed the Marian interpretation. Numerous contextual details, however, are ill-suited to such an explanation. For example, we are scarcely to think that Mary endured the worst of the pains of childbirth (v. 2), that she was pursued into the desert after the birth of her child (6, 13ff.), or, finally, that she was persecuted through her other children (v. 17). The emphasis on the persecution of the woman is really appropriate only if she represents the Church, which is presented throughout the book as oppressed by the forces of evil, yet protected by God. Furthermore, the image of a woman is common in ancient Oriental secular literature as well as in the Bible (e.g., Is 50:1; Jer 50:12) as a symbol for a people, a nation, or a city. It is fitting, then, to see in this woman the People of God, the true Israel of the OT and NT.” 
You use Matthew 19:21 as the basis for indulgences but the verse in context has nothing to do with the idea of “the extra-sacramental remission of the temporal punishment due, in God’s justice, to sin that has been forgiven”. There is no mention of any kind of sacrament in this passage. I don’t get it. 
Even the Old Testament passages don’t support this idea. It is true there can be and usually consequences of sin in our lives but there is no promise in Scripture that these consequences will be alleviated because of some sacrament. 
Where does it say in Matthew 19:21 or anywhere in Scripture that one man’s treasure in heaven can be used for others? Where does it say in Scripture that the church can use these “extra treasures” for others? 
Trust me. I don’t want to scare you but i want to understand how you arrive at your beliefs that Roman Catholic doctrines are true. 
If by the merits of Christ all mankind is saved then why is there a continual warning about hell? If all are saved, then there can be no hell. 
Getting back to the claim that Mary was without sin based on Luke 1:28 here is what a New Testament Greek lexicon says what the words “favored one” mean: “To grace, highly honor or greatly favor. In the NT spoken only of the divine favor, as to the virgin Mary in Luke 1:28, kecharit?mén?, the perf. pass. part. sing. fem. The verb charitó? declares the virgin Mary to be highly favored, approved of God to conceive the Son of God through the Holy Spirit. The only other use of charitó? is in Eph. 1:6 where believers are said to be “accepted in the beloved,” i.e., objects of grace. (See huiothesía [5206], adoption, occurring in Eph. 1:5) In charitó? there is not only the impartation of God’s grace, but also the adoption into God’s family in imparting special favor in distinction to charízomai 
Zodhiates, S. (2000, c1992, c1993). The complete word study dictionary : New Testament (electronic ed.) 
As you can see, it does not mean she was without sin. It does not even mention it.
Again, Matthew 18 has nothing to do with traditions or doctrines but only with church discipline. Good exegesis requires us not to go beyond what is written. Claiming its about Traditions is to go beyond what this passage is saying.

I’ll address your other points next.



My response:
Hi Bob,  
I’d like to address some of your points. How could 2 Peter 2:1 be about protestants only?
Did I say Protestants ONLY?  I meant Protestants ALSO.  There have been many heresies which the Catholic Church defeated in 2000 years.
 In fact we already see in Revelation 1-3 where the Lord Christ Himself is rebuking various churches for holding to false doctrines.
True.
In regards to your church we could look at a number of examples of its teachings and see if they line up with Scripture. 
Awesome!  Let's also look at the Reformers doctrines.  You've yet to show any evidence of their being in Scripture.  You just sort of expect us to take your word for it.
Take Mary’s sinlessness. No one in the New Testament taught she was without sin
This is very repetitious.  We already discussed it above.  Do you think that you repeating Protestant lies is going to make them true?  I repeat, St. Luke taught the doctrine in verse 1:28 where he calls her "kecharitomene" which means "always full of grace."
And no one in the New Testament denies that teaching.
 and in fact acknowledges her need of a Savior in Luke 1:47. 
True.  She received these mighty gifts of God because of Jesus.  Therefore, Jesus is her Savior also.
To claim she would was without sin would contradict Romans 3:9 for example.
No, it wouldn't because St. Paul says in Rom 5:14 that some have not sinned:
Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.

 Have you ever read The Glories of Mary by Alfonso Ligori?
Yes.  I love the book.  I call myself "De Maria" partially because of St. Alphonsus "de Marie" Liguori and partially because of St. Louis "Marie" de Montfort.
Do you also believe that all grace comes through Mary?
Is Jesus "all grace"?  Was He born of Mary?

What is your definition of Sola Scriptura? I want to know if we agree on what it is before I can agree with you that its false.
YOU tell me.  It is your doctrine.  But when you tell me, make sure to show me from Scripture.  

Here is what a couple of Roman Catholic scholars say about the woman of Rev 12:
Raymond Brown and J.A. Fitzmyer, editors of the Jerome Biblical Commentary (2:482):
“a woman: Most of the ancient commentators identified her with the Church; in the Middle Ages it was widely held that she represented Mary, the Mother of Jesus. Modern exegetes have generally adopted the older interpretation, with certain modifications.In recent years several Catholics have championed the Marian interpretation. Numerous contextual details, however, are ill-suited to such an explanation. For example, we are scarcely to think that Mary endured the worst of the pains of childbirth (v. 2), that she was pursued into the desert after the birth of her child (6, 13ff.), or, finally, that she was persecuted through her other children (v. 17). The emphasis on the persecution of the woman is really appropriate only if she represents the Church, which is presented throughout the book as oppressed by the forces of evil, yet protected by God. Furthermore, the image of a woman is common in ancient Oriental secular literature as well as in the Bible (e.g., Is 50:1; Jer 50:12) as a symbol for a people, a nation, or a city. It is fitting, then, to see in this woman the People of God, the true Israel of the OT and NT.”
1st.  What's your point?  Do you believe everything these Catholics teach?  If you did, you would be a Catholic.  Because they are both faithful Catholics.
2nd.  These two Catholics are mistaken.  I can prove they are mistaken but I've already explained several other doctrines and you, "don't get it."  So, what's the point?
3rd.  I'll tackle that in a separate article.  
You use Matthew 19:21 as the basis for indulgences but the verse in context has nothing to do with the idea of “the extra-sacramental remission of the temporal punishment due, in God’s justice, to sin that has been forgiven”. There is no mention of any kind of sacrament in this passage. I don’t get it.
I can tell that you don't understand it.  Your question is completely illogical.  The reason no sacrament is mentioned is because it is "extra-sacramental".  The fact that you ask this question and the way you word the question indicates that you are faking it.  You are trying Do you know what the prefix "extra" means?
extra-
a prefix meaning “outside,” “beyond,” freely used as an English formative: extrajudicial; extraterritorial; extra-atmospheric.
http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/extra

Even the Old Testament passages don’t support this idea. It is true there can be and usually consequences of sin in our lives but there is no promise in Scripture that these consequences will be alleviated because of some sacrament. Where does it say in Matthew 19:21 or anywhere in Scripture that one man’s treasure in heaven can be used for others? Where does it say in Scripture that the church can use these “extra treasures” for others.

You said you don't get it, leave it at that.  God doesn't expect everyone to be a theologian.
Trust me. 
That is the last thing in the world I will do.  You have admitted that you don't have faith in anything you don't understand.  Therefore, it is doubtful to me that you can believe in God.  Since the very idea of God is well beyond ANY MAN'S UNDERSTANDING.  Therefore, no, I do not trust you.
I don’t want to scare you
What makes you think you scare me?
 but i want to understand how you arrive at your beliefs that Roman Catholic doctrines are true.
I already told you.
If by the merits of Christ all mankind is saved then why is there a continual warning about hell? If all are saved, then there can be no hell.
Now it sounds like you're just making noise.  The Catholic Church teaches that the righteous are saved.  Not the wicked.  You interpreted my statement in a manner that goes against that which I believe and that which the Catholic Church teaches.
Getting back to the claim that Mary was without sin
Why?  I already explained it to you about five times in about three articles on Devin's blog.  Are you going to believe me if I explain it again?
based on Luke 1:28 here is what a New Testament Greek lexicon says what the words “favored one” mean: “To grace, highly honor or greatly favor. In the NT spoken only of the divine favor, as to the virgin Mary in Luke 1:28, kecharit?mén?, the perf. pass. part. sing. fem. The verb charitó? declares the virgin Mary to be highly favored, approved of God to conceive the Son of God through the Holy Spirit. The only other use of charitó? is in Eph. 1:6 where believers are said to be “accepted in the beloved,” i.e., objects of grace. (See huiothesía [5206], adoption, occurring in Eph. 1:5) In charitó? there is not only the impartation of God’s grace, but also the adoption into God’s family in imparting special favor in distinction to charízomai
That is a Protestant Lexicon which passes on Protestant doctrine. Here is a Catholic Translation:
In other words, the perfect tense in Greek is a past tense with a special meaning: it is used to refer to a past action which has effects felt in the present. So, here's what some modern, English-speaking scholars tell us "Kecharitomene" denotes, based purely on the definition of the word and its grammatical usage:
" 'Highly favoured' (kecharitomene). Perfect passive participle of charitoo and means endowed with grace (charis), enriched with grace as in Ephesians 1:6 . . . The Vulgate gratiae plena [full of grace] "is right, if it means 'full of grace which thou hast received'; wrong, if it means 'full of grace which thou hast to bestow' " (A.T. Robertson, Word Pictures in the New Testament, p. 14)
"It is permissible, on Greek grammatical and linguistic grounds, to paraphrase kecharitomene as completely, perfectly, enduringly endowed with grace." (Blass and DeBrunner, Greek Grammar of the New Testament).
Zodhiates, S. (2000, c1992, c1993). The complete word study dictionary : New Testament (electronic ed.) As you can see, it does not mean she was without sin. It does not even mention it.
Yes, it does.  You, just "don't get it."  In the meantime, you repeating the lies of your blind guides will not make them true.

Again, Matthew 18 has nothing to do with traditions or doctrines but only with church discipline. Good exegesis requires us not to go beyond what is written. Claiming its about Traditions is to go beyond what this passage is saying.

It is you going beyond what is written, since that verse does not limit itself church discipline to anything.  
I’ll address your other points next.
Looking forward to it.

Links:

 Was He born of Mary?

Sincerely,

De Maria