Note: With reference to the Woman of Rev 12, a Protestant said that the Woman was Israel. Which is possible, indirectly, if the metaphor is used with reference to the nation, but more directly, it is a reference to the Woman, Mary. Why? Because Israel is originally, a man.
Cal:
I hope you have searched the Scriptures and found that Israel is referred to as a WOMAN and not a man as you said in another thread.
Israel is a man:
Genesis 32:27-29
King James Version (KJV)
27 And he said unto him, What is thy name? And he said, Jacob.
28 And he said, Thy name shall be called no more Jacob, but Israel: for as a prince hast thou power with God and with men, and hast prevailed.
29 And Jacob asked him, and said, Tell me, I pray thee, thy name. And he said, Wherefore is it that thou dost ask after my name? And he blessed him there.
Do you deny it?
Sincerely,
De Maria
Another note: The reason this is important, is because most Protestants deny that the Woman of Revelation 12 is a reference to Mary. They claim it is a DIRECT reference to Israel. They can't seem to get it in their heads that a woman is a more direct reference to a woman than a man or a nation. Mary is a woman. Therefore, the most direct reference of the Woman of Rev 12, is to Mary, the mother of the Messiah which is there depicted.
