Hi Russell,
You said,
ROMANS 2:13 AND CONTEXT
Let's to do it.
(Last Updated 10-16-12)For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified. (Romans 2:13)In the Sola Fide (“faith alone”) debate, Catholic apologists will often insist that the verse above strongly indicates that a person is saved by good works, along with faith in Jesus Christ.
That's a misunderstanding. The Catholic Church teaches that:
CHAPTER VIII HOW THE GRATUITOUS JUSTIFICATION OF THE SINNER BY FAITH IS TO BE UNDERSTOODBut when the Apostle says that man is justified by faith and freely,[44] these words are to be understood in that sense in which the uninterrupted unanimity of the Catholic Church has held and expressed them, namely, that we are therefore said to be justified by faith, because faith is the beginning of human salvation, the foundation and root of all justification, without which it is impossible to please God[45] and to come to the fellowship of His sons; and we are therefore said to be justified gratuitously, because none of those things that precede justification, whether faith or works, merit the grace of justification.
The Catholic Church teaches that those who obey God are saved by God's grace. We do not save ourselves either by our faith or our works or by our faith and works.
However, no one who does not do the works of God because of his faith in God will be saved by God.
In their zeal to promote a “faith plus works” system of salvation, Catholics will often use this verse, but overlook or ignore its context.
The one ignoring the context is you, Russell. Look at your next sentence. Do you really claim to be viewing this verse in context but you ignore everything that preceded it?
But what is the context of this passage? Starting from verse 12 to the end of the chapter, the phrase “the law” is clearly speaking of the Mosaic Law…
I think its talking about the law written in the heart of man. But let us look first at the context which preceded it.
If we go back to Rom 1:17-19, he says that no man has an excuse for being unrighteous:
17 For therein is the righteousness of God revealed from faith to faith: as it is written, The just shall live by faith 18 For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who hold the truth in unrighteousness;19 Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them.
Now, if we read further, we see that he condemns all who sin against the Commandments. Look at verses Rom 1:25-32. That is a list of sins against the Commandments of God.
This is what precedes Rom 2. But we are speaking about Rom 2:13. And you claim it is about the Mosaic Law. But Chapter 1 is about the Natural Law. The Commandments written in a man's heart. Now, let's skip to the verse after Rom 2:13:
14 For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves:
So, that should be proof that the context is about the Natural Law. The Law written in man's hearts.
But it is also about the Mosaic Law, because it is also about the Jews. St. Paul is speaking to and about Jews and Gentiles.
But let's see what he says in the verses from Rom 2:1-12:
Romans 2King James Version (KJV)
In this section, he is speaking about judging wrongly. But he is also speaking about good deeds. About keeping the Commandments. And about the reward which God will give to those who keep doing good works without tiring. Here it is:
7 To them who by patient continuance in well doing seek for glory and honour and immortality, eternal life:
God will give glory, honor, immortality and eternal life to those who patiently continue in good works.
What does he say next? Well, he says that those who do not do good and refuse to obey His word, will be rewarded with tribulation and wrath. In other words, they will be condemned to hell.
8 But unto them that are contentious, and do not obey the truth, but obey unrighteousness, indignation and wrath,
But, to EVERY MAN who does good. Whether Jew or Gentile, He will grant glory, honor and peace.
11 For there is no respect of persons with God.
Because God doesn't respect persons. St. Peter says the same thing very succinctly in another place:
Acts 10:33-35King James Version (KJV)
What else does St. Paul say?
12 For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without law: and as many as have sinned in the law shall be judged by the law;
In my opinion, he is here making reference to the written law. Gentiles did not have the written law. Therefore if they sinned without the written law, they will perish or be condemned to hell without it. Because they have it written in their hearts. See verse 14.
But the Jews will be judged by the law which they transgressed. The written law.
13 (For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified.
Now, the verse in question. It is very clear. Hearers of the law. Those who know the law which God prescribes but refuse to keep it, will not be justified by God.
But those who do the law, whether it is the law in their hearts or the written law in the Commandments, will be justified by God.
Verses 14 and 15 confirm what I have just said.
14 For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves: that is, the law that God handed down to Moses to give to the Jews. But do Catholics really want to claim that it is the Mosaic Law that justifies a person? Is it really doing the works of the Mosaic Law that causes a person to be saved? That is certainly not what the Catholic Church teaches (CCC #1963). But that is the conclusion that the Catholic must come to, if using this verse to deny “faith alone,” and he will end up contradicting his own church’s teachings.
On the contrary. That is the classic straw man which you must come to in order to pretend to argue against the Catholic Teaching. But as you have admitted yourself, that which you are arguing against is not the Catholic Teaching.
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Ok, so what does Romans 2:13 really mean if the works of the law don’t save us? The context is about the Jews proudly possessing the law, but they didn’t keep the law. The Apostle Paul is telling certain Jews, “You are just a ‘hearer’, so how does the law help you there? You will not escape punishment.”
Wrong. See above.
The emphasis is NOT that certain types of works will save;
That is your straw man. The Catholic Church teaches that those who keep the law are saved by God. Not that anyone is saved by certain kinds of works.
the emphasis is that God is impartial when it comes to punishing sin, whether committed by Jew or Gentile.
True.
And Paul goes on to say that we’ve all sinned, and all stand guilty before God.
You need to read in context of all of Scripture. Because St. Paul also says:
Romans 5:14
Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.
Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.
In a nutshell, that says that not everyone has sinned.
So, what’s a sinner to do?
Repent and turn to God. That is possibly the most prevalent message of Scripture.
Should he find a new category of good works to try to live up to?
The Commandments, the works which God has ordained from the beginning are sufficient for us:
1 Corinthians 7:19
Circumcision is nothing, and uncircumcision is nothing, but the keeping of the commandments of God.
Circumcision is nothing, and uncircumcision is nothing, but the keeping of the commandments of God.
No, indeed. Because of man’s sin nature, the law (actually, any law of works) is not sufficient as a means of justification.
True. They must be works which are produced from the faith one has in God. Even then, they don't justify. It is God who justifies the faithful who do the works He ordained from the beginning.
Paul goes on for another two chapters, telling us that NO ONE (except for Jesus), neither Jew nor Gentile, has ever kept the law according to God’s standard (which is perfection – Galatians 3:10-12; 5:3; James 2:10).
No he doesn't. You read that into the Scripture because you want to prove a certain point. But if that were true, then Scripture would contradict itself:
Luke 1:6King James Version (KJV)
6 And they were both righteous before God, walking in all the commandments and ordinances of the Lord blameless.
So no one has a perfect record.
And yet Scripture says that some do.
That’s the whole point that Paul is building up to, and that is why God lumps us all together in sin (Romans 3:19; 11:32; Galatians 3:22). But God mercifully gives man a way out… and this way is by faith in Christ, apart from works of the law (Romans 3:28).
Which is actually a reference to the Sacraments. Wherein, those who keep the Commandments are justified of our sins according to our faith in God.
The "doers" in Romans 2:13 are not justified because they are following the law... they are following the law because they are justified; and they are justified by faith (and not works), as Paul will soon demonstrate.
That's not what the verse says. Read it in context. Those who are just in the eyes of God are those who keep His Law.
In justification, God gives a man a new heart and gives him the desire to obey Him.
True. But only after that man has turned to God in faith.
You see, the Apostle Paul is building his case here a step at a time. His argument is progressive (i.e., proceeding point by point in a certain order).
Agreed. But you have misunderstood his point at each step.
In Romans chapter 1, Paul speaks of the guilt and sinfulness of the Gentiles.
He also speaks of the law in their hearts and how they are inexcusable for their sins.
In chapter 2, he demonstrates that the Jews are just as guilty of sin, as well. But the specific context of “how a man is saved / justified” comes later on, starting at about chapter 3, verse 20.
Nope. It is spoken of throughout.
But his argument in Romans 2 doesn’t stop at verse 13. Paul concludes his argument at 3:28 (“Therefore, we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law”) and he then fully discusses this concept in chapter 4.
The problem is that you have cast out the Traditions of Jesus Christ and therefore are reading the Scriptures in a void. If you understood the Traditions of Jesus Christ, you would understand the New Testament because it is upon those Traditions that the New Testament is based.
Romans 4, below, is actually a confirmation of the doctrine of faith AND works. But your tradition has twisted the Scriptures beyond recognition, therefore you don’t understand what you are reading.
Romans 4: 1: What shall we say then that Abraham our father, as pertaining to the flesh, hath found? 2: For if Abraham were justified by works,
First off, the Church does not teach justification by works “alone”. But by faith and works.
And that is only a “manner of speaking”. Because in reality, we are not justified by faith and works. But those who do the works of God are justified in His eyes.
Romans 2:13
King James Version (KJV)
13 (For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified.
King James Version (KJV)
13 (For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified.
Do you understand? We don’t justify ourselves by faith or works. God justifies those who obey Him and do the works of the Law. God justifies. We don’t.
1994 Justification is the most excellent work of God’s love made manifest in Christ Jesus and granted by the Holy Spirit.….
he hath whereof to glory; but not before God.
That is true. And it is again, the Teaching of the Church. That is, in fact, why works are so important:
Philippians 2:11-13
King James Version (KJV)
11 And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father. 12 Wherefore, my beloved, as ye have always obeyed, not as in my presence only, but now much more in my absence, work out your own salvation with fear and trembling. 13 For it is God which worketh in you both to will and to do of his good pleasure.
Philippians 2:11-13
King James Version (KJV)
11 And that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father. 12 Wherefore, my beloved, as ye have always obeyed, not as in my presence only, but now much more in my absence, work out your own salvation with fear and trembling. 13 For it is God which worketh in you both to will and to do of his good pleasure.
We work out our salvation because it is God working through us.
If we are not doing good works then God is not in us.
3: For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness.
This is an awesome Scripture which you have to follow throughout the pages of the venerable book in order to understand its true meaning. Study and show yourself approved! These words were first stated by Moses in Genesis 15:6. And they are explained in the book of St. James.
James 2: 21 Was not Abraham our father justified by works, when he had offered Isaac his son upon the altar?22 Seest thou how faith wrought with his works, and by works was faith made perfect? 23 And the scripture was fulfilled which saith, Abraham believed God, and it was imputed unto him for righteousness: and he was called the Friend of God. 24 Ye see then how that by works a man is justified, and not by faith only.
Did you notice that? The words, “Was not Abraham our father justified by works,….”
Was that by works or by faith? By works. When? When did this take place?
“when he had offered Isaac his son upon the altar?”
But you object? Pull up any Bible that you want, there it is in black and white. He was justified by faith AND WORKS.
You still object? Then explain this. If Abraham was justified by FAITH ALONE in Gen 15:6, or at anytime, why was he not justified back in Genesis 12:1-5? Because, you see, that is when St. Paul says is his first recorded action in faith.
Heb 11:8 By faith Abraham, when he was called to go out into a place which he should after receive for an inheritance, obeyed; and he went out, not knowing whither he went.
So, then, if Abraham were ever justified by faith alone, it should have been in Genesis 12. But since he first had to obey God’s commands and thus add works to his faith and thereby make his faith perfect, he was not justified by faith alone.
As you can see, Protestant theology has taken that verse completely out of context. But it is necessary that they do so in order to confound the populace. Because it is true that the Reformation stands or falls with the doctrine of justification by faith alone. And that doctrine never had legs. Therefore, they must confuse and contort the Scriptures in order to keep you in bondage to their lies.
4: Now to him that worketh is the reward not reckoned of grace, but of debt.
Again, this is a reference to the Jew. Him that worketh. The Old Covenant.
But reckoned of grace is about the Sacramental System which Christ installed. Wherein, we, the laborers who were found late in the evening, are paid the same coin. We are saved in this life and walk with the Saints on Mount Sion.
But reckoned of grace is about the Sacramental System which Christ installed. Wherein, we, the laborers who were found late in the evening, are paid the same coin. We are saved in this life and walk with the Saints on Mount Sion.
And it is in the Sacraments, that we are justified by faith APART FROM WORKS. Baptism is the work of God. Not of man. Burn that into your brain. Justification, the washing away of man’s sins, is done in Baptism. No man can do that. God alone can do that.
5: But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness.
That is us. We who believe in Christ and obey His every word:
Hebrews 5:9
And being made perfect, he became the author of eternal salvation unto all them that obey him;
Hebrews 5:9
And being made perfect, he became the author of eternal salvation unto all them that obey him;
We are saved according to our faith. A faith which is expressed in works:
Galatians 5:6
For in Jesus Christ neither circumcision availeth any thing, nor uncircumcision; but faith which worketh by love.
Galatians 5:6
For in Jesus Christ neither circumcision availeth any thing, nor uncircumcision; but faith which worketh by love.
Let me explain further. We are saved ACCORDING to our faith. Which is expressed in works. But we are neither saved by our faith or by our works. Except in a manner of speaking. Because without either or both, we are not saved. God, in His mercy, saves those who by their faith act out in love.
6: Even as David also describeth the blessedness of the man, unto whom God imputeth righteousness without works, 7: Saying, Blessed are they whose iniquities are forgiven, and whose sins are covered. 8: Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin.
King David is one of the circumcision. And he is making reference to one specific incidence in his life. His adulterous affair with Bathsheba and resulting murder of her husband. David repented. God forgave David. But all David did was ask forgiveness through God’s representative. Yeah. Just like we do in the Sacrament of Confession. God made his repentance known to the Prophet Nathan. And it is Nathan who advised him of God’s forgiveness.
Therefore, this confirms that this is a reference to the Sacraments. God washing away our sin, in the action of the Holy Spirit, when we repent of our sins before the priest (Heb 13:17).
9: Cometh this blessedness then upon the circumcision only, or upon the uncircumcision also? for we say that faith was reckoned to Abraham for righteousness. 10: How was it then reckoned? when he was in circumcision, or in uncircumcision? Not in circumcision, but in uncircumcision.
He is still explaining the same idea. The Sacramental idea. David represents the circumcision. But the New Covenant now includes the Gentiles. The uncircumcision. Abraham was not yet circumcised and had not yet offered Isaac upon the altar when his righteousness was first mentioned.
I highlight the word, first, because justification is a process. And apart from his works, Moses, inspired of the Holy Spirit, declares that Abraham is just in the eyes of God.
Abraham was called out of Ur in Gen 12. By faith, he obeyed.
He was first declared righteous in Gen 15:6.
And his righteousness was tested and confirmed in Gen 22.
He was first declared righteous in Gen 15:6.
And his righteousness was tested and confirmed in Gen 22.
That’s a process. Not a one time event.
11: And he received the sign of circumcision, a seal of the righteousness of the faith which he had yet being uncircumcised: that he might be the father of all them that believe, though they be not circumcised; that righteousness might be imputed unto them also:
This is a reference to us. We who come from the pagan and gentile nations. He is our father also because God made the Covenant with him before he was circumcised. Circumcision was a sign of the Covenant. But God had declared him righteous before he was circumcised. And he was circumcised because of his righteousness.
12: And the father of circumcision to them who are not of the circumcision only, but who also walk in the steps of that faith of our father Abraham, which he had being yet uncircumcised. 13: For the promise, that he should be the heir of the world, was not to Abraham, or to his seed, through the law, but through the righteousness of faith. 14: For if they which are of the law be heirs, faith is made void, and the promise made of none effect: 15: Because the law worketh wrath: for where no law is, there is no transgression.
We need to look at Scripture more closely to see what St. Paul means here:
Genesis 26:5
Because that Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws.
Because that Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws.
The Commandments had not yet been written in stone when Abraham obeyed God’s commandments. Obviously, then, the Commandments existed although they were not written on a physical media. The Law has always existed. But it is in the heart of man.
That is what he means by, “where no law is”. If the law did not exist, God would not have destroyed the world in the Flood.
So, what does St. Paul mean in this verse? He means that the Jews kept the law BY FAITH. The Commandments are there to test the faith of man. This is why they continue to be essential to the Faith of Christ. People who do not keep the Commandments, have no faith in Christ.
1 Corinthians 7:19
Circumcision is nothing, and uncircumcision is nothing, but the keeping of the commandments of God.
Circumcision is nothing, and uncircumcision is nothing, but the keeping of the commandments of God.
Therefore all who are of Christ, are His by faith. And all who live by faith are the seed of Abraham. That is what St. Paul is saying. Jew or Gentile, who keeps the Commandments because of their faith, is a child of Abraham, a child of the promise.
16: Therefore it is of faith,
There, you see. That is the conclusion to which we must arrive. It is of faith. Those who keep the Commandments do so, of faith. But there is more to that verse, so I only took it apart so you could see the conclusion of the previous idea. It also begins a separate idea which I will explain.
16: Therefore it is of faith, that it might be by grace;
You see, faith is the first grace which we receive. It is the prevenient grace of God, which we receive without any merit of our own.
to the end the promise might be sure to all the seed; not to that only which is of the law, but to that also which is of the faith of Abraham; who is the father of us all,
Which confirms what I said above.
17: (As it is written, I have made thee a father of many nations,) before him whom he believed, even God, who quickeneth the dead, and calleth those things which be not as though they were.
Remember the verse that says, “justifieth the ungodly”. That is what it is referring to, “quickeneth the dead”.
18: Who against hope believed in hope, that he might become the father of many nations, according to that which was spoken, So shall thy seed be. 19: And being not weak in faith,
Being not weak in faith, what did he do? Did he say, “Oh, I know you can do it God!” No. He, himself, entered into his wife in the physical, matrimonial sense and they bore a son. Even though they were both well beyond their child bearing years.
he considered not his own body now dead, when he was about an hundred years old, neither yet the deadness of Sara’s womb: 20: He staggered not at the promise of God through unbelief; but was strong in faith, giving glory to God; 21: And being fully persuaded that, what he had promised, he was able also to perform.
There, you see? By his strong faith, he acted. He worked.
22: And therefore it was imputed to him for righteousness.
And so, St. Paul has also explained that verse to you. By faith, he worked and THEREFORE, it was counted to him for righteousness.
23: Now it was not written for his sake alone, that it was imputed to him; 24: But for us also, to whom it shall be imputed, if we believe on him that raised up Jesus our Lord from the dead; 25: Who was delivered for our offences, and was raised again for our justification.
And St. Paul continues. It was not written for Father Abraham alone. But for us, that we, acting in faith, may be made just in the eyes of God.
But you cannot go backwards by starting with 3:28 and conclude with 2:13… 2:13 is NOT a conclusion, and 2:13 is not Paul’s main point in chapter 2 and following. Again, he is advancing his argument from one point to the next and (for it to make sense) one must follow the sequence.
What he has done is advanced to the New Testament where we are now saved in the Sacraments.
Is this the only place that Paul uses this type of progressive argument? Not at all. In the same way, Paul argues in Romans chapters 9 through 11 that God has not rejected His people, Israel. One may read in this passage that the Jews have “not attained to the law of righteousness” (9:31), that they “stumbled” over Jesus Christ (9:32-33), and have been a “disobedient and gainsaying [contradicting] people” who have rejected God’s outstretched hand (10:21). But these passages cannot be considered a “conclusion,” because Paul’s argument does not stop with these. He goes on to say that this is not their end. This is only a “partial hardening” and is only temporary, because Israel will ultimately be saved (11:25-27). If the sequence of Romans 9-11 is ignored, then one could mistakenly think that God is through with Israel.
I agree that St. Paul is making a progressive argument. But I don't agree with your conclusion.
The point is simply that it is important to recognize when a Bible writer is using such a “progressive” argument, as Paul does in Romans 2 (and following), lest we miss the whole point. And of course, determining the proper context is always essential. Otherwise, one can fall victim to distorted interpretations, as many Catholics do here.
You mean as many Protestants do. The Catholic Church teaches the correct understanding.
As we have said before on this blog, good works are certainly God’s will for us and we should be doing them. We will get rewards for our good works (which are done in the right spirit) when we get to Heaven. But we do them out of love and gratitude toward God… we don’t do them to be saved. We are only saved by faith / trusting in the work of Jesus Christ on the cross, and ONLY that work.
It doesn't matter whether you do them to be saved or not. But if you don't do them you won't be saved.
Sincerely,
De Maria